"When Herod saw that he had been tricked by the wise men, he was infuriated, and he sent and killed all the children in and around Bethlehem who were two years old or under, according to the time that he had learned from the wise men." -Matthew 2:16 (NRSV)
I was doing some reading over the past weekend from the NRSV and came upon this verse from the Gospel of Matthew. I noticed that instead of saying that Herod sought to kill all the "boys" in Bethlehem, it referred to the "children". I then double checked the other two translations I had close by, and sure enough the RSV had "male children" while the NAB(RE) had "boys". Looking at some additional translations showed that most of the others followed some form of the RSV or NAB(RE), the KJV being the exception. However, there were some resources that suggested that "child" was a better option. It comes down to how the Greek word παῖς (pais) is translated.
Does it matter if παῖς is translated "children" or "boys/male children"?